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https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com › questions
I have been researching for a long time John 19 30 more specifically the word Tetelestai in the Greek But recently
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In my assessment because 1 these receipts are specifically customs duty receipts and not receipts for a debt or bill payment and
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The Greek word is tetelestai It means to complete or to pay in full In Jesus day the word tetelestai was written on
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My question is this Why do all sources that I can find indicate that the Greek word teleo is what is found in John
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Tetelestai CANNOT mean it is finished in the context as it is commonly perceived Although there is ABSOLUTELY
https://blogs.bible.org › no-resurrection-no-salvation
Jesus says tetelestai here in the perfect tense which is very rare in the New Testament and has no English
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The phrase actually translates one word in Greek tetelestai from the root tele which means to finish fulfill Significantly this
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I OBSERVATION A Passage Selected Mark 1 40 45 Also in Matt 8 1 4 B Progression Stated Logical Cause effect
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